I have yet to respond to JB1’s question concerning “oikos” and its use in 1 Timothy 3:12 where it is shown as something excluding children. My only response is that he (JB1) is correct, as far as this non-Greek speaking aspiring theologian can tell. That being said, I would agree that a defense of paedobaptism based solely on the issue of household baptisms leaves a little to be desired.
Now to my question…Is the “New Covenant“ the same as ”salvation” ? (Some scripture for your consideration: 1 Corinthians 11:25-30; Hebrews 6: 4-8; 10:26-31) Let me know what you think.
JB2
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